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The QUEST- Issue One

Section One: English Language


A sentence with a blank space marked by dotted lines is given along with four answer choices out of which only one is correct. You are expected to fill in the blank space with the correct choice.

1. I have lost the pen _________ you gave me.

(a) That.

(b) Which.

(c) Whom.

(d) There.

2.You did not show any ______ me.

(a) consideration to.

(b) consideration for

(c) consideration by.

(d) consideration in.

3. I am _____ my son's success.

(a) delighted at.

(b) delighted with.

(c) delighted for.

(d) delighted in.

Direction : Out of the four alternatives provided, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given words.

4. Monogamy

(a) Repetitive

(b) Having One Wife

(c) Having Two Wives

(d) Unmarried

5. Pseudonym

(a) Pen-Name

(b) Anonymous

(c) Pretending

(d) Wrong Name

Direction: Out of the four alternatives provided, choose the one word which has exactly the opposite meaning of the given word.

6. Flatter

(a) Entice

(b) Depress

(c) Ridicule

(d) Level

7. Hereditary

(a) Acquired

(b) Believer

(c) Ancestral

(d) Reduce

8. Indignation

(a) Angry

(b) Patient

(c) Accuse

(d) Absolve

Answers to questions on English Language:

1. (a) that.

2. (b) consideration for

3. (d) delighted in.

4. (b) Having One Wife

5. (a) Pen-Name

6. (c) Ridicule

7. (a) Acquired

8. (b) Patient

Section Two: Civics

1. The Constituent Assembly elected as its permanent chairman

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Rajendra Prasad

(c) B. R. Ambedkar

(d) K.M. Munshi

2. Who was Chairman of the Drafting committee which drafted the Constitution ?

(a) B.R.Ambedkar

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Rajendra Prasad

(d) C.R. Rajagopalachari

3. The Constitution of India was adopted on:

(a) January 26,1950

(b) January 26,1949

(c) November26, 1949

(d) December31,1949

4. The Constitution of India came into force on:

(a) January 26, 1950

(b) January 26, 1952

(c) August 16, 1948

(d) November 26, 1949

5. The Constitution of India contains:

(a) 295 Articles

(b) over 400 Articles

(c) 259 Articles

(d) 301 Articles

6. The Constitution of India contains:

(a) nine Schedules

(b) eight Schedules

(c) twelve Schedules

(d) ten Schedules

7. The Constitution of India describes India as:

(a) a 'union of states'

(b) 'quasi-federal'

(c) a federation of states and union territories

(d) a unitary state

8. The Preamble was amended by the:

(a) 24th Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 44th Amendment

(d) none of these amendments

Answers to questions on Civics:

1. (b) Rajendra Prasad

2. (a) B.R.Ambedkar 

3. (c) November26, 1949

4. (a) January 26, 1950

5. (b) over 400 Articles

6. (c) twelve Schedules

7. (a) a 'union of states'

8. (b) 42nd Amendment

Section Three: History

1. Men of the modern type – Homo Sapiens appeared in the

(a) Pleistocene Period

(b) Upper Paleolithic Period

(c) Middle Paleolithic Period

(d) Lower Paleolithic Period

2. Indus Valley civilization was spread over

(a) Punjab, Sind

(b) Punjab, Sind, Rajasthan, Gujarat

(c) Along river Indus

(d) Sind, Punjab, Jammu & Kashmir, U. P, Rajasthan, Gujarat

3. The Indus Valley civilization specialized in

(a) town planning

(b) architecture

(c) craftsmanship

(d) all there

4. The Rig Veda contains

(a) rituals to be adopted by people

(b) hymns in honour of the gods

(c) yagna to be performed

(d) history of the Vedic period

5. The Saka era was started by

(a) Ashoka

(b) Chandregupta II

(c) Kanishka

(d) Harsha

6. 4Tripitakas are the sacred books of the

(a) Jains

(b) Hindus

(c) Muslims

(d) Buddhists

7. The title “Vikramaditiya” was assumed by

(a) Ashoka

(b) Chandragupta -II

(c) Kanishka

(d) Samudragupta

8. The finest specimens of Pallava architecture are

(a) Temples of Madurai

(b) Temple of Tanjore

(c) Rock –cut Temples at Mahabalipuram

(d) Kailashnath Temple of Ellora

Answers to questions on History:

1. (b) Upper Paleolithic Period

2. (a) Punjab, Sind

3. (d) all there

4. (b) hymns in honour of the gods

5. (c) Kanishka

6. (d) Buddhists

7. (b) Chandragupta -II

8. (c) Rock –cut Temples at Mahabalipuram

Section Four: General Science

1. The Zygote

(a) develops from a single parent

(b) union of male and female gametes

(c) is found only in unicellular organisms

(d) none of the above

2. The Process of the formation of three germ layers starts from.

(a) blastula

(b) gastrula

(c) morula

(d) none of the above

3. The term gametogeneis is used for the formation and differentiation of alls

(a) sperms

(b) ova

(c) gametes

(d) none of the above

4. Which of the primary germ layers give rise to the spinal card.

(a) endoderm

(b) ectoderm

(c) mesoderm

(d) none of the above

5. In all mammals in adult stage, R B cells are without nucleus except one animal The name of this animal is :

(a) whale

(b) elephant

(c) monkey

(d) camel

6. The destruction of red cells is called-

(a) erythropoilsis

(b) plasmolysis

(c) hemolysis

(d) hemopiesis

7. The blood does not wagulate inside our body because of-

(a) heparin in blood

(b) sodium chloride in blood

(c) movement of blood

(d) sodium oxalate in blood

8. The largest artery in the body is-

(a) capillary

(b) venacava

(c) artery

(d) aorta

Answers to questions on General science:

1. (b) union of male and female gametes

2. (b) blastula

3. (b) ova

4. (b) ectoderm

5. (d) camel

6. (c) hemolysis

7. (a) heparin in blood

8. (d) aorta

Section Five: Teaching Aptitude

1. The mean score on any class test is the result of:

(a) dividing the sum of all scores by the number of scores

(b) determining the middle score when all the scores have been listed from the highest to the lowest

(c) determining the most frequent score.

(d) Adding all the scores and dividing by the most frequent score

(e) Adding the highest and lowest scores and dividing by two

2. The least justifiable use of the results of a standardized reading test is to:

(a) identify areas of pupil deficiency

(b) evaluate the reading instruction programme.

(c) Serve as a basis for report card marks

(d) Serve as the basis for a parent conference

(e) Serve as the basis for class groupings

3. Fifteen –year old Arvind has taken to wearing the same style sweaters that his teacher wears. This form of behaviour is known as:

(a) compensation

(b) transference

(c) indentification

(d) regression

(e) egocentrism

4. At least one third of the learning that will determine later levels of school achievement has already taken place by age six. This is a statement most closely associated with the writings of:

(a) Benjamin Bloom

(b) Margaret Mead

(c) Martin Mayer

(d) Fritiz Redl

(e) Nathan Glazer

5. Of the following, the most unreliable predictor of educational achievement is:

(a) inherited biological potential for learning

(b) ethnic origin of parents

(c) family background and training

(d) classroom experiences

(e) self concept.

6. All the following are acceptable goals for dealing with behaviour problems in the classroom, except:

(a) helping the child to improve his/her self-control

(b) being impersonal and objective

(c) understanding the offense

(d) utilizing appeals to children that have personal implications

(e) punishing, when necessary, in private

7. In preparing a fifth grade class to take a standardized reading test the teacher is best advised to:

(a) tell the children the test is very important and they should do the best they can

(b) ditto key questions from a previous test and allow the pupils to answer them

(c) do nothing

(d) coach the below grade level readers, as the rest of the class will do well anyway

(e) Give the pupils practice in answering questions similar to the type that will appear on the test

8. Of the following, the one situation that will cause the greatest difficulty for a child in the initial stages of reading instruction is :

(a) confusion of left and right directionality

(b) possessing an IQ of 90

(c) having older siblings who are successful readers

(d) never having attended kindergarten

(e) being an avid television watcher

Answers to questions on Teaching Aptitude:

1. (a) dividing the sum of all scores by the number of scores

2. (c) Serve as a basis for report card marks

3. (c) indentification

4. (a) Benjamin Bloom

5. (b) ethnic origin of parents

6. (d) utilizing appeals to children that have personal implications

7. (e) Give the pupils practice in answering questions similar to the type that will appear on the test.

8. (a) confusion of left and right directionality

Section Six: Quantitative Aptitude and Logical Reasoning

1. A shopkeeper bought 800 kg rice at Rs.3840. He had to sell it at a loss of as much as he received for 16 kg. The selling price (per kg, in Rs.) will be:

(a) Rs.40

(b) Rs.100

(c) Rs.50

(d) Rs.80

(e) Rs.65

2. From 3 boys and 4 girls, three persons are to be selected in such a way that at least one girl is selected. In how many different ways can they be selected?

(a) 60

(b) 42

(c) 21

(d) 36

(e) None of these

3. Sushil borrowed Rs.15,000 from Anita at compound interest rate of 12% per annum. How much money should Sushil pay at the end of 2 years to settle the loan?

(a) Rs.18,600

(b) Rs.18,816

(c) Rs.18,618

(d) Rs.18,869

(e) None of these

4. Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equivalent to a single discount of:

(a) 35%

(b) 32%

(c) 17.5%

(d) 17%

5. A man goes 10 meter due east and then 24 meter due north. Find the distance from the starting point.

(a) 26 meters

(b) 24 meters

(c) 28 meters

(d) 30 meters

6. X and Y start from the same point and run around a circular stadium, whose circumference is 4200 meters, at the rate of 500 meters and 700 meters per minute respectively in the opposite directions. They will meet each other in:

(a) 3.5 minutes

(b) 6.0 minutes

(c) 8.4 minutes

(d) 21 minutes

7. If A’s salary is 25% higher than B’s salary, how much per cent is B’s salary lower than A’s?

(a) 15%

(b) 20%

(c) 25%

(d) 33.33%

8. If 6440 soldiers were asked to stand in rows to form a perfect square, it was found that 40 soldiers were left out. What was the number of soldiers in each row?

(a) 40

(b) 80

(c) 64

(d) 60

Answers to questions on Quantitative Aptitude and logical Reasoning :

1. (a) Rs.40

2. (e) None of theses

3. (b) Rs.18,816

4. (b) 32%

5. (a) 26 meters

6. (a) 3.5 minutes

7. (b) 20%

8. (b) 80

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